4.124 The holding of an internal property of a possible state of things will not be expressed through a proposition, but rather it expresses itself in the proposition that presents the state of things, through an internal property of this proposition.

It would be equally senseless to ascribe a formal property to a proposition as to deny it.

By 4.122, do “formal property” and “internal property” mean the same here? If so, then the second sentence/paragraph implies that the first is senseless. And does the second sentence really have a sense? Has “formal property” been defined?