Wednesday, November 14, 2007

5.5562 If we know on purely logical grounds that there must be elementary propositions, then it must be known by everyone who understands the propositions in their unanalyzed form.

But such universal knowledge seems unlikely. So if this is right, it is another strike against there being elementary propositions, or at least against our knowing that there must be. But is this right? Why should it be?

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